Can anyone tell me if a 2.73 to 1 rear end ratio is more economical than a
3.73to1? What is the formula for figuring the ratios? I checked my car and
the drive shaft turns about 2 and 3/4 turns to 1 for the wheel. Would that
make it be a 2.73 to 1? Appreciate your help. Lou
Tom S - 28 Jan 2007 00:51 GMT
>Can anyone tell me if a 2.73 to 1 rear end ratio is more economical than a
>3.73to1? What is the formula for figuring the ratios? I checked my car and
>the drive shaft turns about 2 and 3/4 turns to 1 for the wheel. Would that
>make it be a 2.73 to 1? Appreciate your help. Lou
You got it right. A 2.73 rear end would theoretically be more
economical, if you do a lot or driving at a constant speed. You get
more speed but less power from a 2.73. More power (torque) but less
speed from a 3.73.
tom S.
fred - 28 Jan 2007 01:09 GMT
You will get better mileage with the 2.73 to 1.
> Can anyone tell me if a 2.73 to 1 rear end ratio is more economical than a
> 3.73to1? What is the formula for figuring the ratios? I checked my car
> and the drive shaft turns about 2 and 3/4 turns to 1 for the wheel. Would
> that make it be a 2.73 to 1? Appreciate your help. Lou